Question Author
OK, prescription is taken to pharmacy, if a fee is paid £8.05 is handed over or proof of pre payment cetificate is shown. The pharmacist then dispenses, has it checked by another assistant and gives to patient sometimes asking questions of other medication have you had it before etc. At the end of each month all the scripts are sent to the prescription pricing authority for checking and then the pharmacy receives payment for dispensing every item whether they have been paid for or not. This payment is not the same multiplier of £8.05 but another figure that may be in the region of almost double the fee. This is the figure I am looking for. So simply put if 200 items are dispensed, only 100 are fee paid, this equates to £80.50 but the pharmacy payment (for arguments sake lets call it £13) will be £260. This is why all pharmacies fall over themselves for this business and why they can all afford vans for pick up and delivery as this is very profitable for them even giving discount incentives to nursing homes just to make sure they get their business. If, as one once could, buy 100 paracetamol over the counter, it would cost me £1, but I can't unless I troll around 3 shops and buy 2 packets of 16 meaning I have 96 which have cost me 96p. But on prescription they will cost me £8.05 but the pharmacy will have purchased them cheaper than that and then they get paid £13(in our imaginary scenario). of course I understand that some medications cost more and some don't pay but the non payers do not mean the pharmacy misses out, they get the multiplier regardless. Its this multiplier I am after. Does this clear it up?